Archived from groups: comp.security.firewalls (More info?)
In the books and Usenet posts I've read there is a lot of concern
about ensuring your firewall blocks access to exploited ports, such as
31337. But suppose your firewall looks like:
iptables -P INPUT DROP
iptables -P OUTPUT DROP
iptables -P FORWARD DROP
.... now enable some OUTPUT ports for HTTP, DNS, etc.
If I don't explicitly enable the exploited ports, isn't this then
sufficient blocking. Or, in other words, why is the explicit blocking
text also required?
Archived from groups: comp.security.firewalls (More info?)
javaguy_in_wheaton wrote:
>In the books and Usenet posts I've read there is a lot of concern
>about ensuring your firewall blocks access to exploited ports, such as
>31337. But suppose your firewall looks like:
>
>iptables -P INPUT DROP
>iptables -P OUTPUT DROP
>iptables -P FORWARD DROP
>
>... now enable some OUTPUT ports for HTTP, DNS, etc.
>
>If I don't explicitly enable the exploited ports, isn't this then
>sufficient blocking. Or, in other words, why is the explicit blocking
>text also required?
It makes people feel safer. If your default policy is DROP, then only
what you specifically allow will make it through.
Archived from groups: comp.security.firewalls (More info?)
javaguy_in_wheaton wrote:
> In the books and Usenet posts I've read there is a lot of concern
> about ensuring your firewall blocks access to exploited ports, such as
> 31337. But suppose your firewall looks like:
>
> iptables -P INPUT DROP
> iptables -P OUTPUT DROP
> iptables -P FORWARD DROP
>
> ... now enable some OUTPUT ports for HTTP, DNS, etc.
>
> If I don't explicitly enable the exploited ports, isn't this then
> sufficient blocking. Or, in other words, why is the explicit blocking
> text also required?
It isn't. It's only there for marketing reasons. It doesn't do anything.
Archived from groups: comp.security.firewalls (More info?)
Martin wrote:
>javaguy_in_wheaton wrote:
>
>> In the books and Usenet posts I've read there is a lot of concern
>> about ensuring your firewall blocks access to exploited ports, such as
>> 31337. But suppose your firewall looks like:
>>
>> iptables -P INPUT DROP
>> iptables -P OUTPUT DROP
>> iptables -P FORWARD DROP
>>
>> ... now enable some OUTPUT ports for HTTP, DNS, etc.
>>
>> If I don't explicitly enable the exploited ports, isn't this then
>> sufficient blocking. Or, in other words, why is the explicit blocking
>> text also required?
>
>It isn't. It's only there for marketing reasons. It doesn't do anything.
LOL! Of course it does, but it's merely redundant, as the "catch-all"
policy will deal with it when it finds no rules that match. Just
purely out of curiousity, why would you say it's marketing reasons?
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