Questions

[Guest]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

HI Everyone

i am going to ask a huge favour, i know this is cheating BUT i want to get
into the virtual airlines qantas site and i need to do a exam to get in, i
have pasted the questions below with their multiple choice answers if
someone would be grate full to help me out, i just want to fly.I have only
been flying a short while and these questions have thrown me, not sure of
the answers. I did the test and only got 38% you need to get 70% to enter
the site
Why they have these exams is silly its suppose to be fun.

THANKS everyone who take s the time to read and help me out


2. The term TOGA refers to..

Choices:

A. a party with funny clothes

B. trim up gear aft

C. take off go around

D. turbulence only general aviation



DME stands for:

Choices:

A. Distance Metering Equipment

B. Daytime Measuring Equipment

C. Differential Measuring Equipment

D. Distance Measuring Equipment



A transponder setting of 7700 indicates...

Choices:

A. you are on final approach

B. you are declaring a change in course

C. you are declaring an emergency

D. you are ready for departure



NDB refers to....

Choices:

A. non-directional beacon

B. navigation display beacon

C. navigation direction beacon

D. navigation display beam



IAP refers to ...

Choices:

A. Instrument Altitude Process

B. Indicated Airspeed Procedure

C. Instrument Approach Procedure

D. Indicated Approach Procedure



You do not know your current heading, but you are tuned in to an NDB and
your ADF needle is pointing straight up. Therefore you must be ...

Choices:

A. due south of the NDB

B. due north of the NDB

C. due west of the NDB

D. you cannot determine which direction you are from the NDB



As you are on approach to a runway, you will cross the marker beacons in the
following order...

Choices:

A. OM, IM, MM

B. OM, MM, IM

C. MM, OM, IM

D. MM, IM, OM



In US airspace the speed limit below 10,000 feet, unless changed by ATC
is...

Choices:

A. 210 KIAS

B. 250 KIAS

C. 190 KIAS

D. 300 KIAS



The glide slope typically is ...

Choices:

A. a 3 degree approach

B. a 4 degree approach

C. a 5 degree approach

D. a 6 degree approach



You are flying IFR from New York to Las Vegas. Which of the following is
NOT a proper ICAO flight level for your flight

Choices:

A. FL310

B. FL330

C. FL350

D. FL390



You are flying IFR from Los Angeles to Chicago. Which of the following is
NOT a valid flight level for your flight?

Choices:

A. FL370

B. FL350

C. FL330

D. FL290



STAR refers to ...

Choices:

A. Standard Terminal Arrival Route

B. Standard Transport Airline Route

C. Standard Terminal Airport Region

D. Standard Transport Arrival Route



Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind
conditions?

Choices:

A. A power-off approach and power-on landing.

B. A power-on approach and power-on landing.

C. A power-on approach and power-off landing.



When should pilots decline a 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance?

Choices:

A. Only when the tower controller concurs.

B. If runway surface is contaminated.

C. When it will compromise safety.



When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action
is recommended and for what primary reason?

Choices:

A. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to
penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible.

B. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid
overstressing the airplane.

C. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to
attain more positive control.



During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of
being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the

Choices:

A. amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.

B. heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.

C. power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper
glidepath.



V1 refers to:

Choices:

A. the first VOR enroute

B. the speed at which you are commited to takeoff

C. the velocity of the aircraft

D. The Navigation Voice radios



If you are on approach for rwy 26L with an OBS at 262, and the tower
tells?you the wind is 175 at 8, you are landing with a...

Choices:

A. Tailwind

B. Crosswind

C. Headwind

D. No wind



Rotation refers to.....

Choices:

A. the speed at which the flaps can be safely retracted

B. the speed at which a plane can takeoff

C. the speed at which at plane reaches the speed of sound

D. the speed at which reverse thrust may be applied



Your cruise altitude is decided by...

Choices:

A. air traffic control

B. your flight plan

C. the aircraft's weight

D. all of the above



You are on final approach to runway 26, whose magnetic heading is 264. The
correct OBS setting should be...

Choices:

A. 264

B. 260

C. 180

D. 164

E. 265

F. 080



You are flying on a heading of 120, tracking the 300 radial of a
certain?VOR. Your NAV display reads 'TO' ,your OBS is set to 120, you are
generally...

Choices:

A. northwest of the VOR

B. south of the VOR

C. east of the VOR

D. southeast of the VOR



You are flying on a heading of 022 degrees, you execute a 180 degree left
turn, your new heading is..

Choices:

A. 180

B. 22

C. 222

D. 202



ICAO codes for intersections are generally identified with ..

Choices:

A. 2 letter codes

B. 3 letter codes

C. 4 letter codes

D. 5 letter codes



ICAO codes for VORs are generally identified with...

Choices:

A. 2 letter codes

B. 3 letter codes

C. 4 letter codes

D. 5 letter codes



TOC refers to...

Choices:

A. type of clouds

B. time of communications

C. top of clouds

D. top of climb



The aiming point (where you want to land) on an ILS approach is...

Choices:

A. the runway numbers

B. the designated touchdown zone

C. 5000 feet from the threshold

D. the green row of lights at the end of the runway



ATC instructs you to 'report when established.' This means you should
contact ATC...

Choices:

A. when you are ready for takeoff

B. when you are ready to taxi

C. when you land

D. when you are lined up with the ILS



A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine
failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is ...

Choices:

A. landing directly into the wind

B. maintaining a safe airspeed

C. turning back to the takeoff field

D. keeping the landing gear down



When an altimeter is changed from 30.11 Hg to 29.96 Hg, in which direction
will the indicated altitude change?

Choices:

A. higher

B. lower

C. neither, it will remain the same

D. none of the above

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

Cameron <cameronpeters@optusnet.com.au> wrote:

> 2. The term TOGA refers to..
>
> Choices:
>
> A. a party with funny clothes
>
> B. trim up gear aft
>
> C. take off go around
>
> D. turbulence only general aviation


C.


> DME stands for:
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Distance Metering Equipment
>
> B. Daytime Measuring Equipment
>
> C. Differential Measuring Equipment
>
> D. Distance Measuring Equipment

D.



> A transponder setting of 7700 indicates...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. you are on final approach
>
> B. you are declaring a change in course
>
> C. you are declaring an emergency
>
> D. you are ready for departure


C.


> NDB refers to....
>
> Choices:
>
> A. non-directional beacon
>
> B. navigation display beacon
>
> C. navigation direction beacon
>
> D. navigation display beam


A.

> IAP refers to ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Instrument Altitude Process
>
> B. Indicated Airspeed Procedure
>
> C. Instrument Approach Procedure
>
> D. Indicated Approach Procedure


C.


> You do not know your current heading, but you are tuned in to an NDB and
> your ADF needle is pointing straight up. Therefore you must be ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. due south of the NDB
>
> B. due north of the NDB
>
> C. due west of the NDB
>
> D. you cannot determine which direction you are from the NDB


D.


> As you are on approach to a runway, you will cross the marker beacons in the
> following order...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. OM, IM, MM
>
> B. OM, MM, IM
>
> C. MM, OM, IM
>
> D. MM, IM, OM


B.


> In US airspace the speed limit below 10,000 feet, unless changed by ATC
> is...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 210 KIAS
>
> B. 250 KIAS
>
> C. 190 KIAS
>
> D. 300 KIAS

B.


> The glide slope typically is ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. a 3 degree approach
>
> B. a 4 degree approach
>
> C. a 5 degree approach
>
> D. a 6 degree approach


A.

> You are flying IFR from New York to Las Vegas. Which of the following is
> NOT a proper ICAO flight level for your flight
>
> Choices:
>
> A. FL310
>
> B. FL330
>
> C. FL350
>
> D. FL390


Don't know without researching.

> You are flying IFR from Los Angeles to Chicago. Which of the following is
> NOT a valid flight level for your flight?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. FL370
>
> B. FL350
>
> C. FL330
>
> D. FL290

D.


> STAR refers to ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Standard Terminal Arrival Route
>
> B. Standard Transport Airline Route
>
> C. Standard Terminal Airport Region
>
> D. Standard Transport Arrival Route


A.

> Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind
> conditions?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. A power-off approach and power-on landing.
>
> B. A power-on approach and power-on landing.
>
> C. A power-on approach and power-off landing.

C.


> When should pilots decline a 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Only when the tower controller concurs.
>
> B. If runway surface is contaminated.
>
> C. When it will compromise safety.

C.


> When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action
> is recommended and for what primary reason?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to
> penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible.
>
> B. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid
> overstressing the airplane.
>
> C. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to
> attain more positive control.

C.


> During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of
> being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the
>
> Choices:
>
> A. amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.
>
> B. heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.
>
> C. power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper
> glidepath.


B. or C.


> V1 refers to:
>
> Choices:
>
> A. the first VOR enroute
>
> B. the speed at which you are commited to takeoff
>
> C. the velocity of the aircraft
>
> D. The Navigation Voice radios


B.

> If you are on approach for rwy 26L with an OBS at 262, and the tower
> tells?you the wind is 175 at 8, you are landing with a...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Tailwind
>
> B. Crosswind
>
> C. Headwind
>
> D. No wind

B.


> Rotation refers to.....
>
> Choices:
>
> A. the speed at which the flaps can be safely retracted
>
> B. the speed at which a plane can takeoff
>
> C. the speed at which at plane reaches the speed of sound
>
> D. the speed at which reverse thrust may be applied

B.



> Your cruise altitude is decided by...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. air traffic control
>
> B. your flight plan
>
> C. the aircraft's weight
>
> D. all of the above


D.


> You are on final approach to runway 26, whose magnetic heading is 264. The
> correct OBS setting should be...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 264
>
> B. 260
>
> C. 180
>
> D. 164
>
> E. 265
>
> F. 080


A.


> You are flying on a heading of 120, tracking the 300 radial of a
> certain?VOR. Your NAV display reads 'TO' ,your OBS is set to 120, you are
> generally...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. northwest of the VOR
>
> B. south of the VOR
>
> C. east of the VOR
>
> D. southeast of the VOR

A.

> You are flying on a heading of 022 degrees, you execute a 180 degree left
> turn, your new heading is..
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 180
>
> B. 22
>
> C. 222
>
> D. 202

D.


> ICAO codes for intersections are generally identified with ..
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 2 letter codes
>
> B. 3 letter codes
>
> C. 4 letter codes
>
> D. 5 letter codes

D.


> ICAO codes for VORs are generally identified with...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 2 letter codes
>
> B. 3 letter codes
>
> C. 4 letter codes
>
> D. 5 letter codes


B.

> TOC refers to...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. type of clouds
>
> B. time of communications
>
> C. top of clouds
>
> D. top of climb

D.


> The aiming point (where you want to land) on an ILS approach is...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. the runway numbers
>
> B. the designated touchdown zone
>
> C. 5000 feet from the threshold
>
> D. the green row of lights at the end of the runway


B.


> ATC instructs you to 'report when established.' This means you should
> contact ATC...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. when you are ready for takeoff
>
> B. when you are ready to taxi
>
> C. when you land
>
> D. when you are lined up with the ILS

D.


> A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine
> failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. landing directly into the wind
>
> B. maintaining a safe airspeed
>
> C. turning back to the takeoff field
>
> D. keeping the landing gear down

B.


> When an altimeter is changed from 30.11 Hg to 29.96 Hg, in which direction
> will the indicated altitude change?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. higher
>
> B. lower
>
> C. neither, it will remain the same
>
> D. none of the above

B.



--
Peter













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[Guest]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

Marcel wrote:

> I know that's not what this group is about, but maybe he just isn't
ready
> to fly for a VA yet.

Perhaps, but since it *is* strictly entertainment and no lives will be
lost if he is accepted and screws up, then there really is no foul.

--
Peter

 

[dallas]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

I passed too! Now all I have to do is pass my practical to get my IFR
ticket, right?

<G>

Dallas

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

pr wrote:

<big snip>

You're a hell of a guy, Peter.
I wouldn't have given one good answer.

I know that's not what this group is about, but maybe he just isn't ready to
fly for a VA yet.


Marcel

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

Zoepetier <zoepetier@hotmail.com> wrote:

> You're a hell of a guy, Peter.
> I wouldn't have given one good answer.

I was actually testing myself. What he does with the answers is
inconsequential.

--
Peter













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----= East and West-Coast Server Farms - Total Privacy via Encryption =----

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

Cameron wrote:

> i am going to ask a huge favour, i know this is cheating BUT i want
> to get into the virtual airlines qantas site

Bad news for you, Cameron. I just took the quiz over there at the
Quantas site and it looks like they pull their questions from a larger
pool of questions. In other words, the questions you posted are not
the only questions you could encounter when you testing.

BTW, I got a 92 on my quiz, but I have no idea what I missed. Probably
the flight level questions as I would need to look them up in the
flight regulations and I didn't bother.

Good luck,

--
Peter

 

[Danny]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

Cameron you might try www.flightbase2000.com. I don't recall any questions
much tougher than "What's your name" . Maybe you can get that correct with
out outside assistance.



"Cameron" <cameronpeters@optusnet.com.au> wrote in message
news:4259cdb8$0$5393$afc38c87@news.optusnet.com.au...
> HI Everyone
>
> i am going to ask a huge favour, i know this is cheating BUT i want to get
> into the virtual airlines qantas site and i need to do a exam to get in, i
> have pasted the questions below with their multiple choice answers if
> someone would be grate full to help me out, i just want to fly.I have only
> been flying a short while and these questions have thrown me, not sure of
> the answers. I did the test and only got 38% you need to get 70% to enter
> the site
> Why they have these exams is silly its suppose to be fun.
>
> THANKS everyone who take s the time to read and help me out
>
>
> 2. The term TOGA refers to..
>
> Choices:
>
> A. a party with funny clothes
>
> B. trim up gear aft
>
> C. take off go around
>
> D. turbulence only general aviation
>
>
>
> DME stands for:
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Distance Metering Equipment
>
> B. Daytime Measuring Equipment
>
> C. Differential Measuring Equipment
>
> D. Distance Measuring Equipment
>
>
>
> A transponder setting of 7700 indicates...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. you are on final approach
>
> B. you are declaring a change in course
>
> C. you are declaring an emergency
>
> D. you are ready for departure
>
>
>
> NDB refers to....
>
> Choices:
>
> A. non-directional beacon
>
> B. navigation display beacon
>
> C. navigation direction beacon
>
> D. navigation display beam
>
>
>
> IAP refers to ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Instrument Altitude Process
>
> B. Indicated Airspeed Procedure
>
> C. Instrument Approach Procedure
>
> D. Indicated Approach Procedure
>
>
>
> You do not know your current heading, but you are tuned in to an NDB and
> your ADF needle is pointing straight up. Therefore you must be ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. due south of the NDB
>
> B. due north of the NDB
>
> C. due west of the NDB
>
> D. you cannot determine which direction you are from the NDB
>
>
>
> As you are on approach to a runway, you will cross the marker beacons in
the
> following order...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. OM, IM, MM
>
> B. OM, MM, IM
>
> C. MM, OM, IM
>
> D. MM, IM, OM
>
>
>
> In US airspace the speed limit below 10,000 feet, unless changed by ATC
> is...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 210 KIAS
>
> B. 250 KIAS
>
> C. 190 KIAS
>
> D. 300 KIAS
>
>
>
> The glide slope typically is ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. a 3 degree approach
>
> B. a 4 degree approach
>
> C. a 5 degree approach
>
> D. a 6 degree approach
>
>
>
> You are flying IFR from New York to Las Vegas. Which of the following is
> NOT a proper ICAO flight level for your flight
>
> Choices:
>
> A. FL310
>
> B. FL330
>
> C. FL350
>
> D. FL390
>
>
>
> You are flying IFR from Los Angeles to Chicago. Which of the following is
> NOT a valid flight level for your flight?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. FL370
>
> B. FL350
>
> C. FL330
>
> D. FL290
>
>
>
> STAR refers to ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Standard Terminal Arrival Route
>
> B. Standard Transport Airline Route
>
> C. Standard Terminal Airport Region
>
> D. Standard Transport Arrival Route
>
>
>
> Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind
> conditions?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. A power-off approach and power-on landing.
>
> B. A power-on approach and power-on landing.
>
> C. A power-on approach and power-off landing.
>
>
>
> When should pilots decline a 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Only when the tower controller concurs.
>
> B. If runway surface is contaminated.
>
> C. When it will compromise safety.
>
>
>
> When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what
action
> is recommended and for what primary reason?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to
> penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible.
>
> B. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to
avoid
> overstressing the airplane.
>
> C. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to
> attain more positive control.
>
>
>
> During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of
> being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the
>
> Choices:
>
> A. amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.
>
> B. heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.
>
> C. power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper
> glidepath.
>
>
>
> V1 refers to:
>
> Choices:
>
> A. the first VOR enroute
>
> B. the speed at which you are commited to takeoff
>
> C. the velocity of the aircraft
>
> D. The Navigation Voice radios
>
>
>
> If you are on approach for rwy 26L with an OBS at 262, and the tower
> tells?you the wind is 175 at 8, you are landing with a...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. Tailwind
>
> B. Crosswind
>
> C. Headwind
>
> D. No wind
>
>
>
> Rotation refers to.....
>
> Choices:
>
> A. the speed at which the flaps can be safely retracted
>
> B. the speed at which a plane can takeoff
>
> C. the speed at which at plane reaches the speed of sound
>
> D. the speed at which reverse thrust may be applied
>
>
>
> Your cruise altitude is decided by...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. air traffic control
>
> B. your flight plan
>
> C. the aircraft's weight
>
> D. all of the above
>
>
>
> You are on final approach to runway 26, whose magnetic heading is 264. The
> correct OBS setting should be...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 264
>
> B. 260
>
> C. 180
>
> D. 164
>
> E. 265
>
> F. 080
>
>
>
> You are flying on a heading of 120, tracking the 300 radial of a
> certain?VOR. Your NAV display reads 'TO' ,your OBS is set to 120, you are
> generally...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. northwest of the VOR
>
> B. south of the VOR
>
> C. east of the VOR
>
> D. southeast of the VOR
>
>
>
> You are flying on a heading of 022 degrees, you execute a 180 degree left
> turn, your new heading is..
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 180
>
> B. 22
>
> C. 222
>
> D. 202
>
>
>
> ICAO codes for intersections are generally identified with ..
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 2 letter codes
>
> B. 3 letter codes
>
> C. 4 letter codes
>
> D. 5 letter codes
>
>
>
> ICAO codes for VORs are generally identified with...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. 2 letter codes
>
> B. 3 letter codes
>
> C. 4 letter codes
>
> D. 5 letter codes
>
>
>
> TOC refers to...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. type of clouds
>
> B. time of communications
>
> C. top of clouds
>
> D. top of climb
>
>
>
> The aiming point (where you want to land) on an ILS approach is...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. the runway numbers
>
> B. the designated touchdown zone
>
> C. 5000 feet from the threshold
>
> D. the green row of lights at the end of the runway
>
>
>
> ATC instructs you to 'report when established.' This means you should
> contact ATC...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. when you are ready for takeoff
>
> B. when you are ready to taxi
>
> C. when you land
>
> D. when you are lined up with the ILS
>
>
>
> A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine
> failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is ...
>
> Choices:
>
> A. landing directly into the wind
>
> B. maintaining a safe airspeed
>
> C. turning back to the takeoff field
>
> D. keeping the landing gear down
>
>
>
> When an altimeter is changed from 30.11 Hg to 29.96 Hg, in which direction
> will the indicated altitude change?
>
> Choices:
>
> A. higher
>
> B. lower
>
> C. neither, it will remain the same
>
> D. none of the above
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

On 11 Apr 2005 10:14:35 -0700, pr wrote:

> Perhaps, but since it *is* strictly entertainment and no lives will be
> lost if he is accepted and screws up, then there really is no foul.

I know.
Maybe that VA is the only one out there that has new pilots take a test
first. Call it the quick version of a long RL study.
If they were really serious they'd have a 30 second timer for each question
so you can't look them up on the internet.

But those are things a VA pilot should know by heart, since most VA's take
their flying very seriously. I've read on a few VA sites that a certain
number of hours have to be flown each week. Most fly real time with real
weather and generally fly real airline schedules and routes.
They're not like us. They're a completely different class of simmers.

Cameron did mention that he hadn't been flying very long, so maybe he
should study some more before joing a VA.

I once thought about joining a VA until I found out just how serious they
took themselves. Actually....the only VA I'd ever consider joining is DC-3
Airways. But I don't really like their livery very much.

--

Marcel
(It's good to be the king! - Mel Brooks)

 

[Bob]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

Marcel Kuijper wrote:

> On 11 Apr 2005 10:14:35 -0700, pr wrote:
>
>
>>Perhaps, but since it *is* strictly entertainment and no lives will be
>>lost if he is accepted and screws up, then there really is no foul.
>
>
> I know.
> Maybe that VA is the only one out there that has new pilots take a test
> first. Call it the quick version of a long RL study.
> If they were really serious they'd have a 30 second timer for each question
> so you can't look them up on the internet.
>

Cameron, join aerotexas.com

(http://aerotexas.giwiganz.com/)
The initial test is a very easy flight from one airport to another about
50 miles apart. If you don't crash or land at the wrong airport and
make sure you fly over the 2 VORs, you are good to go. They recently
stopped using FS2002 and are now strictly an FS9 VA. If you do screw up
the flight test, just do it again until you make it. They are not
judgmental and flying is fun. Well, except flying the TTA routes. the
only aircraft available is the CV580 so it gets boring.

--

boB

U.S. Army Aviation (retired)
Central Texas - 5NM West of Gray Army Airfield (KGRK)

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: alt.games.microsoft.flight-sim (More info?)

Hi everyone

thanks so much for all your responses and to Peter to answering the
questions.

When i took the test at the qantas site, i have the same questions so just
luck that i had the same one again - THANKS PETER your a legend.

Sorry to Marcel, i wasnt having a go at you, i am really sorry if it came
across like that, as you have helped me out once before with a question in
the pass so a big sorry to you.

Anyway thanks to you all and hope to see you all in the air soon

Cameron