mail records and cname

[Guest]

Archived from groups: microsoft.public.win2000.dns (More info?)

I have the following...

domain1.com (which I don't own) set to cname domainA.com (which I own). This
is so when I go to domain1.com in my browser, I actually view the page
hosted on domainA.com that resides on my server.

My question is...

Can I create a host record mail.domainA.com and MX record on domainA.com and
expect to receive emails sent to user@domain1.com to arrive at
mail.domainA.com due to the cname translation? I'm not sure if this is
allowed usage for cname.

Thanks for the help

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: microsoft.public.win2000.dns (More info?)

In news:coo2m5$s8s$1@nntp2-cm.news.eni.net,
LC <lco@gofuse.com> commented
Then Kevin replied below:
> I have the following...
>
> domain1.com (which I don't own) set to cname domainA.com
> (which I own). This is so when I go to domain1.com in my
> browser, I actually view the page hosted on domainA.com
> that resides on my server.
>
> My question is...
>
> Can I create a host record mail.domainA.com and MX record
> on domainA.com and expect to receive emails sent to
> user@domain1.com to arrive at mail.domainA.com due to the
> cname translation? I'm not sure if this is allowed usage
> for cname.

Your mail server will have to handle this. DNS can publish an MX record in
domainA.com and domain1.com going to the same mail server. You would simply
create an MX record in domainA.com with mail.domain1.com listed as its SMTP
server. DNS could not do what you want, if the mail goes to user@domain1.com
the sending server will look up the MX record for domain1.com and send it to
that server. It would have to be up to the receiving server to direct it to
the mail box of your choice, just about any mail server can do this.


--
Best regards,
Kevin D4 Dad Goodknecht Sr. [MVP]
Hope This Helps
===================================
When responding to posts, please "Reply to Group"
via your newsreader so that others may learn and
benefit from your issue, to respond directly to
me remove the nospam. from my email address.
===================================
http://www.lonestaramerica.com/
===================================
Use Outlook Express?... Get OE_Quotefix:
It will strip signature out and more
http://home.in.tum.de/~jain/software/oe-quotefix/
===================================
Keep a back up of your OE settings and folders
with OEBackup:
http://www.oehelp.com/OEBackup/Default.aspx
===================================

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: microsoft.public.win2000.dns (More info?)

On Thu, 2 Dec 2004 13:50:09 -0800, "LC" <lco@gofuse.com> wrote:

>I have the following...
>
>domain1.com (which I don't own) set to cname domainA.com (which I own). This
>is so when I go to domain1.com in my browser, I actually view the page
>hosted on domainA.com that resides on my server.
>
>My question is...
>
>Can I create a host record mail.domainA.com and MX record on domainA.com and
>expect to receive emails sent to user@domain1.com to arrive at
>mail.domainA.com due to the cname translation? I'm not sure if this is
>allowed usage for cname.

No (well, it's not supposed to but you may luck out in some instances,
at best it would probably still trigger spam filters and the like).
You'd need a MX record in domain1.com to handle the mail exchange.
But it could be a MX record that points to mail.domainA.com, assuming
the SMTP server was set up to accept the mail.

Jeff

 

[Guest]

Archived from groups: microsoft.public.win2000.dns (More info?)

You can do a horrible ugly work around potentially. If you do not specify
any MX record in a DNS zone file and have the zone pointing to an A record
all mail will be directed to that A record. So you can change your
domain1.com cname to an A record to your mail server's IP address. If you
need website redirection do a www.domain1.com cname to www.domainA.com.

Some reading for you:
http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc2821.html
RFC2821 Section "5. Address Resolution and Mail Handling" Paragraph 1 (which
obsoletes RFC 974 but is still a Proposed Standard) specifies basically the
same idea:
"If no MX records are found, but an A RR is found, the A RR is treated as
if it was associated with an implicit MX RR, with a preference of 0,
pointing to that host."

Some DNS implementation do not support this so it may not work in every case
but it seems to work for many of the mis-configured zones I have seen out
there. There are far better ways of doing this if you can work with the
owner of the other domain. If not, give that a shot.

Regards,
Ed Horley
Microsoft MVP Server-Networking


"LC" <lco@gofuse.com> wrote in message
news:coo2m5$s8s$1@nntp2-cm.news.eni.net...
>I have the following...
>
> domain1.com (which I don't own) set to cname domainA.com (which I own).
> This is so when I go to domain1.com in my browser, I actually view the
> page hosted on domainA.com that resides on my server.
>
> My question is...
>
> Can I create a host record mail.domainA.com and MX record on domainA.com
> and expect to receive emails sent to user@domain1.com to arrive at
> mail.domainA.com due to the cname translation? I'm not sure if this is
> allowed usage for cname.
>
> Thanks for the help
>
>