how is this possible?

compbug

Distinguished
Mar 7, 2006
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18,630
an executable file of any OS can b installed on 2 DIFFERENT machines.
i.e the same executable file of any OS can b installed on AMD and INTEL processors.how is it possible?

as v know that the compiler generates object code APPROPRIATE for the PROCESSOR on which it is running.and linker generates machine code and links other header files .

this is what happens for a program to run successfully on a machine.

but how in The case of OS whose executable file generated on some other machines but still able to install it on 2 different machines. NO IDEA ABT IT AT ALL.

plz explain this
 

linux_0

Splendid
an executable file of any OS can b installed on 2 DIFFERENT machines.
i.e the same executable file of any OS can b installed on AMD and INTEL processors.how is it possible?

as v know that the compiler generates object code APPROPRIATE for the PROCESSOR on which it is running.and linker generates machine code and links other header files .

this is what happens for a program to run successfully on a machine.

but how in The case of OS whose executable file generated on some other machines but still able to install it on 2 different machines. NO IDEA ABT IT AT ALL.

plz explain this


Machine code is machine code.

32bit x86 binaries will run on any 32bit x86 or 64bit x86_64 machine as long as the Operating systems are the same or compatible.

The machine instructions are VIRTUALLY the same on AMD and Intel CPUs so binaries will work on either architecture with a few limitations ( x86_64 code will not work on 32bit only CPUs ).