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Archived from groups: rec.games.trading-cards.jyhad (More info?)
A couple of players in our play group were of the opinion that
if Vampire A, with superior Protean, has one stealth and is blocked
by untapped Vampire B with one intercept (who then taps), that
Vampire A could not strike with superior Form of Mist at all
because it does not "need stealth". It already has stealth and
the vampire with intercept is tapped.
There is an old ruling, still to be found in the rulings page
under "Form of Mist" which states, "The superior form cannot be
used by the acting vampire unless he needs the stealth." Taken
by itself, this is non-sensical since at the moment of the
strike, there's no call for blockers who could be blocking the
renewed action so *NO* vampire could possibly "need stealth".
If I recall correctly (which is always dubious), the issue is
resolved by assuming his opponent in combat is still the one
attempting to block and that the issue of whether it could,
given that it's now tapped, is not considered. (That is, it's
as if acting vampire is still trying to evade the original
block). The need for stealth (or not) is then resolved that way.
The acting vampire almost always needs stealth except in a
few corner cases, again, if I recall correctly.
So anyway, do I have this right or does the prohibition against
using FoM when needing stealth mean something completely
different?
And if I do have it right, it seems like with the rewrite of
FoM when Anarchs was printed, there's no longer a need to rule
that Form of Mist can't be played at superior when the acting
vampire doesn't need the stealth. It seems to me it would be
perfectly fine to allow that as long as the acting vampire
didn't pay the blood to continue the action. Just my $0.02.
Fred
A couple of players in our play group were of the opinion that
if Vampire A, with superior Protean, has one stealth and is blocked
by untapped Vampire B with one intercept (who then taps), that
Vampire A could not strike with superior Form of Mist at all
because it does not "need stealth". It already has stealth and
the vampire with intercept is tapped.
There is an old ruling, still to be found in the rulings page
under "Form of Mist" which states, "The superior form cannot be
used by the acting vampire unless he needs the stealth." Taken
by itself, this is non-sensical since at the moment of the
strike, there's no call for blockers who could be blocking the
renewed action so *NO* vampire could possibly "need stealth".
If I recall correctly (which is always dubious), the issue is
resolved by assuming his opponent in combat is still the one
attempting to block and that the issue of whether it could,
given that it's now tapped, is not considered. (That is, it's
as if acting vampire is still trying to evade the original
block). The need for stealth (or not) is then resolved that way.
The acting vampire almost always needs stealth except in a
few corner cases, again, if I recall correctly.
So anyway, do I have this right or does the prohibition against
using FoM when needing stealth mean something completely
different?
And if I do have it right, it seems like with the rewrite of
FoM when Anarchs was printed, there's no longer a need to rule
that Form of Mist can't be played at superior when the acting
vampire doesn't need the stealth. It seems to me it would be
perfectly fine to allow that as long as the acting vampire
didn't pay the blood to continue the action. Just my $0.02.
Fred